Question 07 : Given below are two statements : One is  labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R :

Assertion A: Late wood has fewer xylary elements with narrow vessels.

Reason R: Cambium is less active in winters.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

(2) A is true but R is false.

(3) A is false but R is true.

(4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Ans. (4) ( NEET 2023 Answer Key / Paper Solution )

Question 08 : The process of appearance of recombination nodules occurs at which sub stage of prophase I in meiosis?

(1) Pachytene

(2) Diplotene

(3) Diakinesis

(4) Zygotene

Ans. (1) ( NEET 2023 Answer Key / Paper Solution )

Question 09 : Which of the following stages of meiosis involves division of centromere?

(1) Metaphase II

(2) Anaphase II

(3) Telophase

(4) Metaphase I

Ans. (2)  (NEET 2023 Answer Key / Paper Solution)

Question 10 : During the purification process for recombinant DNA technology, addition of chilled ethanol precipitates out

(1) DNA

(2) Histones

(3) Polysaccharides

(4) RNA

Ans. (1) (NEET 2023 Answer Key / Paper Solution) 

Question 11 : Family Fabaceae differs from Solanaceae and Liliaceae. With respect to the stamens, pick out the characteristics specific to family Fabaceae but not found in Solanaceae or Liliaceae.

(1) Polyadelphous and epipetalous stamens

(2) Monoadelphous and Monotheous anthers

(3) Epiphyllous and Dithecous anthers

(4) Diadelphous and Dithecous anthers

Ans. (4)(NEET 2023 Answer Key / Paper Solution) 

Question  12 : Large, colourful, fragrant flowers with nectar are seen in:

(1) bird pollinated plants

(2) bat pollinated plants

(3) wind pollinated plants

(4) insect pollinated plants

Ans. (4) (NEET 2023 Answer Key / Paper Solution) 

Question 13 : Spraying of which of the following phytohormone on juvenile conifers helps in hastening the maturity period, that leads to early seed production ?

(1) Gibberellic Acid

(2) Zeatin

(3) Abscisic Acid

(4) Indole-3-butyric Acid

Ans. (1) 

Question 14 : Axile placentation is observed in

(1) China rose, Beans and Lupin

(2) Tomato, Dianthus and Pea

(3) China rose, Petunia and Lemon

(4) Mustard, Cucumber and Primrose

Ans. (3)
11th NCERT Page No – 7

( NEET 2023 Answer Key / Paper Solution )

 

Question 15 : Among eukaryotes, replication of DNA takes place in –

(1) S phase

(2) G1 phase

(3) G2 phase

(4) M phase

Ans. (1)
11th NCERT Page No – 163

( NEET 2023 Answer Key / Paper Solution )

 

Question 16 : How many ATP and NADPH2 are required for the synthesis of one molecule of Glucose during Calvin cycle?

(1) 18 ATP and 12 NADPH2

(2) 12 ATP and 16 NADPH2

(3) 18 ATP and 16 NADPH2

(4) 12 ATP and 12 NADPH2

Ans. (1)

11th NCERT Page No – 218 

( NEET 2023 Answer Key / Paper Solution )

 

Question 17 : In gene gun method used to introduce alien DNA into host cells, microparticles of _____ metal are used.

(1) Zinc

(2) Tungsten or gold

(3) Silver

(4) Copper

Ans. (2)
12th NCERT Page No – 201 ( NEET 2023 Answer Key / Paper Solution )

 

Question 18 : The thickness of ozone in a column of air in the atmosphere is measured in terms of:

(1) Decibels

(2) Decameter

(3) Kilobase

(4) Dobson units

Ans. (4)
12th NCERT Page No – 282

( NEET 2023 Answer Key / Paper Solution )

 

Question 19 : Unequivocal proof that DNA is the genetic material was first proposed by

(1) Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase

(2) Avery Macleoid and McCarthy

(3) Wilkins and Franklin

(4) Frederick Griffith

Ans. (1)

12th NCERT Page No – 101

( NEET 2023 Answer Key / Paper Solution )

 

Question 20 : In the equation

GPP – R = NPP

GPP is Gross Primary Productivity
NPP is Net Primary Productivity
R here is ______
(1) Respiratory quotient

(2) Respiratory loss

(3) Reproductive allocation

(4) Photosynthetically active radiation

Ans. (2)
12th NCERT Page No – 243

( NEET 2023 Answer Key / Paper Solution )

 

Question 21 : What is the role of RNA polymerase III in the process of transcription in Eukaryotes?

(1) Transcription of tRNA, 5 srRNA and snRNA

(2) Transcription of precursor of mRNA

(3) Transcription of only snRNAs

(4) Transcription of rRNAs (28S, 18S and 5.8S)
Ans. (1)
12th NCERT Page No – 111

( NEET 2023 Answer Key / Paper Solution )

 

Question 22 : Which micronutrient is required for splitting of water molecule during photosynthesis ?

(1) molybdenum

(2) magnesium

(3) copper

(4) manganese
Ans. (4)
11th NCERT Page No – 19

( NEET 2023 Answer Key / Paper Solution )

 

Question 23 : In angiosperm, the haploid, diploid and triploid structures of a fertilized embryo sac sequentially are:

(1) Antipodals, synergids, and primary endosperm nucleus

(2) Synergids, Zygote and Primary endosperm nucleus

(3) Synergids, antipodals and Polar nuclei

(4) Synergids, Primary endosperm nucleus and zygote
Ans. (2)

12th NCERT Page No – 27

( NEET 2023 Answer Key / Paper Solution ) 

 

Question 24 : The phenomenon of pleiotropism refers to

(1) presence of two alleles, each of the two genes controlling a single trait.

(2) a single gene affecting multiple phenotypic expression.

(3) more than two genes affecting a single character.

(4) presence of several alleles of a single gene controlling a single crossover.

Ans. (2)
12th NCERT Page No – 85 ( NEET 2023 Answer Key / Paper Solution )

 

Question 25 : Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:

Assertion A: ATP is used at two steps in glycolysis.

Reason R: First ATP is used in converting glucose into glucose – 6- phosphate and second ATP is used in conversion of fructose-6- phosphate into fructose-1-6- disphosphate. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

(2) A is true but R is false.

(3) A is false but R is true.

(4) Both A and R the true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Ans. (4)
11th NCERT Page No – 229 ( NEET 2023 Answer Key / Paper Solution )

 

Question 26 : Cellulose does not form blue colour with Iodine because

(1) It is a helical molecule.

(2) It does not contain complex helices and hence cannot hold iodine molecules.

(3) It breaks down when iodine reacts with it.

(4) It is a disaccharide.
Ans. (2)
11th NCERT Page No – 148 ( NEET 2023 Answer Key / Paper Solution )

 

Question 27 : Which hormone promotes internode/petiole elongation in deep water rice?

(1) Kinetin

(2) Ethylene

(3) 2, 4-D

(4) GA3

Ans. (2)
11th NCERT Page No – 250 ( NEET 2023 Answer Key / Paper Solution )

 

Question 28 :  Expressed Sequence Tags (ESTs) refers to

(1) All genes that are expressed as proteins.

(2) All genes whether expressed or unexpressed.

(3) Certain important expressed genes.

(4) All genes that are expressed as RNA.

Ans. (4)
12th NCERT Page No – 119

 

Question 29 : Given below are two statements:

Statements I: The forces generatd by transpiration can lift a xylem-sized column of water over 130 meters height.

Statements II: Transpiration cools leaf surfaces sometimes 10 to 15 degrees, by evaporative cooling. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) Both Statements I and Statements II are incorrect.

(2) Statements I is correct but Statements II is incorrect

(3) Statements I is incorrect but Statements II is correct.

(4) Both Statements I and Statements II are correct.
Ans. (4)
11th NCERT Page No – 188, 189 (NEET 2023 Answer Key / Paper Solution)

 

Question 30 : Upon exposure to UV radiation, DNA stained with ethidium bromide will show

(1) Bright blue color

(2) Bright yellow color

(3) Bright orange color

(4) Bright red color

Ans. (3)
12th NCERT Page No – 198

(NEET 2023 Answer Key / Paper Solution)

Question 31 : The historic Convention on Biological Diversity. The Earth Summit’ was held in Rio de Janeiro in the year:

(1) 1992 (2) 1986 (3) 2002 (4) 1985

Ans. (1)
12th NCERT Page No – 267  (NEET 2023 Answer Key / Paper Solution)

Question 32 : The reaction center in PS II has as absorption maxima at

(1) 700 nm (2) 660 nm (3) 780 nm (4) 680 nm
Ans. (4)

11th NCERT Page No – 211 (NEET 2023 Answer Key / Paper Solution)

Question 33 : Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:

Assertion A: The first stage of gametophyte in the life cycle of moss is protonema stage.

Reason R : Protonema develops directly from spores produced in capsule.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

(1) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

(2) A is correct but R is not correct.

(3) A is not correct but R is correct.

(4) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Ans. (4)
11th NCERT Page No – 36 (NEET 2023 Answer Key / Paper Solution)

Question 34 : In tissue culture experiments, leaf mesophyll cells are put in a culture medium to form callus. This phenomenon may be called as :

(1) Dedifferentiation

(2) Development

(3) Senescence

(4) Differentiation
Ans. (1)
11th NCERT Page No – 245  

Question 35 : Given below are two statements :

Statement I: Endarch and exarch are the terms often used for describing the position of secondary xylem in the plant body.

Statement II: Exarch condition is the most common feature of the root system.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false.

(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true.

(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

Ans. (3)
11th NCERT Page No – 87

Question 36 : Identify the correct statements:

A. Lenticels are the lens-shaped opening permitting the exchange of gases.

B. Bark formed early in the season is called hard bark.

C. Bark is a technical term that refers to all tissues exterior to vascular cambium.

D. Bark refers to periderm and secondary phloem.

E. Phellogen is single – layered in thickness.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1) A and D only

(2) A, B and D only

(3) B and C only

(4) B, C and E only

Ans. (1)
11th NCERT Page No – 97 

 

Question 37 : Match List I with List II :
List I List II
A. Cohesion I. More attraction in liquid phase
B. Adhesion II. Mutual attraction among water A molecules
C. Surface tension III. Water loss in liquid phase
D. Guttation IV. Attraction towards polar surfaces
Choose the correct answer from the options given

below :

(1) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

(2) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

(3) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

(4) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

Ans. (4)
11th NCERT Page No – 188  (NEET 2023 Answer Key / Paper Solution)

 

Question 38 : Match List I with List II:

S.N.	List I	List II
(A)	M Phase	I. Proteins are synthesized
(B)	G2 Phase	II. Inactive phase
(C)	Quiescent stage	III. Interval between mitosis and initiation of DNA replication
(D)	G1 Phase	Equational division

 Question 39 : Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A- IV, B- II, C- I, D- III

(2) A- IV, B- I, C- II, D- III

(3) A- II, B- IV, C- I, D- III

(4) A- III, B- II, C- IV, D- I

Ans. (2)
11th NCERT Page No – 163, 164

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A- IV, B- II, C- I, D- III (2) A- IV, B- I, C- II, D- III
(3) A- II, B- IV, C- I, D- III (4) A- III, B- II, C- IV, D- I
Ans. (2)
11th NCERT Page No – 163, 164

 

Question 40 : Given below are two statements :
Statement I : Gause’s Competitive Exclusion Principle states that two closely related species competing for the
same resources connot co-exist indefinitely and competitively inferior one will be eliminated eventually.

Statement II : In general, carnivores are more adversely affected by competition than herbivores.
In the light of the above statements. choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false

(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true.

(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
Ans. (2)
12th NCERT Page No – 234

 

Question 41 : How many different proteins does the ribosome consist of ?
(1) 60 (2) 40 (3) 20 (4) 80
Ans. (4)
12th NCERT Page No – 115 

 

Question 42 : Which of the following combinations is required fo chemiosmosis?

(1) membrane, proton pump, proton gradient, NADP synthase

(2) proton pump, electron gradient, ATP synthase

(3) proton pump, electron gradient, NADP synthase

(4) membrane, proton pump, proton gradient, ATP synthase
Ans. (4)

11th NCERT Page No – 233, 234 (NEET 2023 Answer Key / Paper Solution)

 

Question 43 : Which of the following combinations is required fo chemiosmosis?

(1) membrane, proton pump, proton gradient, NADP synthase

(2) proton pump, electron gradient, ATP synthase

(3) proton pump, electron gradient, NADP synthase

(4) membrane, proton pump, proton gradient, ATP synthase

Ans. (4)
11th NCERT Page No – 233, 234 

 

Question 44 : Match List I with List II :
List I                      List II
(Interaction)     (Sepcies A and B)

A. Mutualism     I. +(A), O(B)

B. Commensalism   II. –(A), O(B)

C. Amensalism      III. +(A), –(B)

D. Parasitism       IV. +(A), +(B)

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III.

(2) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

(3) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

(4) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III

Ans. (1)
12th NCERT Page No – 232 (NEET 2023 Answer Key / Paper Solution)

 

Question 45 : Main steps in the formation of Recombinant DNA are given below. Arrange these steps in a correct sequence.

(A) Insertion of recombinant DNA into the host cell.

(B) Cutting of DNA at specific location by restriction enzyme.

(C) Isolation of desired DNA fragment.

(D) Amplification of gene of interest using PCR.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) C, A, B, D

(2) C, B, D, A

(3) B, D, A, C

(4) B, C, D, A

Ans. (4)
12th NCERT Page No – 201, 202, 203(NEET 2023 Answer Key / Paper Solution) (NEET 2023 Answer Key / Paper Solution)